Norm brings up a question asked by Peter Beinart on Twitter:
? for war supporters: why is Iran/Hitler analogy better than analogy w/ Stalin getting nuke in 1949 or Mao getting it in 1964?Norm's own response to that:
One could turn that around. Why isn't it a better analogy?I am not sure whether Mr Beinart is genuinely baffled by the question he
Why indeed, dear Peter? And how, precisely, it matters?